What makes it most interesting is that even when presented with the proper formula, you still can’t seem to follow
Once again, your math is wrong, you are not considering the fact that you have 4 hands vs 1, all 4 being a 64% favourite each
You are deliberately trying to misinform people, like your mentor, the Wizard, by putting up unfactual numbers that support your theory, and trying to save face
I am not an online math tutor and i am permanently done with you
Read my post again. Why do you think I multipied by 4?…. BECAUSE THERE ARE 4 HANDS.
And it is 4 hands vs 2 hands, rather than 4 vs 1 in the real world. I realize there are different rules in your casino fantasy land where you can double on 1-card hands and split hand BJs pay 2 to 1 (What happens in your fantasyland if you double a 1-card hand and get a BJ, is that a “double BJ” that pays 4 to 1?) .